thank you for the answer. I also watched your video. Question: I heard tell that the Memra (Aramaic) understanding was prevalent, and it is this Memra that John uses in John 1:1. But if there was no Targum in Jesus' times, and only oral traditions, would the "Word" be widely understood as meaning an embodied manifestation of Yahweh? –, All scriptures agree that Jesus is the son of the Holy Spirit. Taking from the contribution of @TheWayist, Logos= Memra, the passage is undisputed. Assuming that the author of the Gospel is John the Apostle or someone referring to him, this is the only option. In favour of "God": From the same argument, it is possible that the text had been , The concept was based on the various texts of the Old Testament. The scriptures teach that no man can see God, and yet some did see Him. That paradox led to the creation of Memra theology of God having two forms. The unperceivable and unseen form we call today God the Father. And, the perceivable by our senses, called the Word of God (Memra/Logos)., Stack Exchange Network. Stack Exchange network consists of 183 Q&A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers., There they arose and rebelled against my Memra, by appointing a king over them, but they were not worthy that the kingship should be established for them in Gibeah. There warriors came against them for slaughter; fathers with sons went up. Modern academic commentaries, however, tend to focus on the Levite and his concubine. Here is Hermeneia[1]:, Genesis 3:15 is referred to by Christian theologians as the protoevangelium (first proclamation of the [Christian] gospel). The text reads: Hebrew (MT): וְאֵיבָ֣ה׀ אָשִׁ֗ית בֵּֽינְךָ֙ וּבֵ֣ין.